To speak of time according to Plato seems to impose as single reference that which is said of it in the Timaeus. But even in the Timaeus there is no unity of time, although cosmic time serves as a link with intelligible being. In the Parmenides, this link does not exist, with the result that (first hypothesis) time is identified with a becoming which is pure transition in every sense, or (second hypothesis) is immobilised in the series of nows, while progressing numerically. But if being is necessarily being in time according to Parmenides, how can one maintain the existence of atemporal Forms? This problem concerns the interpretation of the whole Dialogue, understood here as the proof that any representation of the Forms that omits the sou...